FCL exams

PPL Sample Examination Questions

In accordance with an undertaking given to the aviation industry, CASA has published a sample of the actual questions used for the Private Pilot (Aeroplane) Licence examination. This is the first step in a new system of presenting examinations in Australia, utilising published sample questions and the development of a new system of delivery. These questions may or may not appear in your examination, however questions that do appear will examine the same subject matter in the same style as those attached.

Each question begins with the relevant syllabus reference to which that question relates, followed by the text of the question. The syllabus reference is made up of a number of digits and sometimes letters. The first number refers to the 'block' from the Day VFR Syllabus (eg 1.3.3.1). The remaining numbers represent the syllabus item.

Bold italicised text is editorial to provide explanation only.

1.3.3.1
"To maintain VMC when flying OCTA at 4500 ft AMSL the minimum horizontal separation from cloud is - "

1.3.3.1(a)
"While cruising at A065 OCTA you notice that another aircraft is converging on you from the left at the same level. What actions should you take?"

1.3.3.1(b)
"At a non-controlled aerodrome without an associated MBZ, the latest position at which an aircraft is permitted to join the circuit is -"

1.3.3.1(c)
"You are planning to take-off from a non-controlled aerodrome in an aircraft having a MTOW of 750 kg, and have just lined up at the beginning of the runway. Another aircraft of the same type has just taken off from the same 1900 metres runway. The earliest you can commence your take-off is when the other aircraft is airborne and at least:"

1.3.3.1(d)
"The Regulation regarding smoking in aircraft states that smoking is -"

1.3.3.1(e)
"A VFR flight within Australia is normally restricted to a height of:"

1.3.3.1(f)
"At what stage of a flight should you change from area QNH to local QNH (if available) when descending from A075?"

1.3.3.1e/2.8.8.1
"You plan to fly OCTA on a VFR flight at a cruising level of 2500 feet. To maintain VMC at your selected altitude the minimum vertical separation from cloud is -"

1.3.3.2(a)
"Which of the following restrictions applies to the consumption of alcoholic liquor by pilots?"

1.3.3.3
"A steady red light signal directed at an aircraft in flight signifies to the pilot that the -"

1.3.3.4
"When may a pilot elect to fly at a height lower than 500 ft above the highest obstacle or terrain?"

1.3.4.2(a)(i)
"An aircraft with a maximum seating capacity of 6 is to be refuelled. Under which (of the following) conditions are ambulatory passengers permitted to remain on board?"

1.3.4.2(a)(ii)
"One item which must be included in a passenger briefing prior to take-off is:"

1.3.4.3
"Which of the following conditions pertains to the carriage of an infant in an aircraft? "

1.3.4.3(a)(i)
"For all flights, the pilot in command of an aeroplane shall test the flight controls to the full limit of their travel immediately before -"

1.3.4.3(a)(ii)
"When is the pilot in command required to inspect and test the aircraft's fuel system for the presence of water?"

1.3.4.3(a)(iii)
"Which rule applies to occupancy of a control (co-pilot's) seat by a passenger of a dual controlled aircraft?"

1.3.4.3(b)(i)
"You are planning a flight in a 4 seater dual control aeroplane with the following passengers: 2 adults and 2 children aged 5 and 8 weighing 20 kg and 40 kg respectively. Assuming aircraft weight limitations will not be exceeded, which of the following limitations apply and why?"

1.3.5.3
"Which signal, when placed adjacent to the primary wind indicator signifies that the aerodrome is completely unserviceable?"

1.3.5.4(f)
"A horizontal white dumbell adjacent to the primary windsock means -"

1.3.7.5&2.3.1.3
"You are departing a controlled aerodrome where the Enroute Supplement indicates, ""Voice AVBL on NDB for EMERG transmissions"". If you experience communications failure, one of the actions required is that you:"

2.3.1.3
"When is R418, in the SYDNEY FIR, active?"

2.3.2.1(a)
"You hold a private pilot licence and are employed in another capacity by a company which owns a single-engine aircraft (with a seating capacity of six). If no charge is made or remuneration received by you or the company, one situation in which you may act as pilot-in-command is:"

2.3.3.1
"In addition to your pilot's licence and medical certificate, which documents must be carried on board an Australian registered aircraft for a solo flight in the training area?"

2.3.3.2(c)
"A prohibited area is defined as airspace in which flight by civil aircraft is:"

2.3.4.1(c)
"The overwater segment of a flight in a single-engine aircraft is just beyond gliding distance from land. Which of the following items must be carried on board the aircraft?"

2.3.4.1(d)(i)
"In an aircraft with MTOW less than 5700 kg, which limitation applies to the carriage of cargo?"

2.3.4.1(d)(ii)
"One condition applying to the carriage of stretcher patients in aircraft is that -"

2.3.4.1(d)(v)
"You are flying home with your friend and his pet dog. As pilot in command what are your legal responsibilities regarding the carriage of this dog?"

2.3.6.2(d)
"One requirement when flying in a lane of entry is that aircraft shall:"

2.3.6.2(e)
"Which statement regarding operations in a Danger Area OCTA is correct -"

2.3.7.1
"You are asked to fly a critically ill person to a major city hospital for urgent medical treatment. The patient's doctor confirms that the flight is vital to save loss of life. You may declare the flight as a mercy flight only if:...."

2.3.7.2
"When shall an Air Safety Incident Report be submitted?"

2.3.8.1(a)
"A pilot of a flight, over land, within an ADIZ shall immediately notify ATS of a deviation from track of plus or minus -....."

2.3.8.1(b)
"Within an ADIZ, an intercepting aircraft performs a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more, without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. This means -...."

8.7.1
"Which statement correctly specifies the conditions under which the pilot of a VFR flight is required to obtain and study a meteorological forecast before beginning a flight?"

1.7.6(a)(iv)/2.7
"11 US gph converted to litres/hr is closest to -...."

1.7.6(b)
"Given: W/V = 250M/30. Runways available are 03/21 and 09/27. Which runway has the greatest headwind component for landing?"

1.8.2.1
"Which of the following will increase the landing distance when using an asphalt runway?"

1.8.2.1
"Take-off distance required will be increased by -....."

1.8.2.2
"The length of runway which is available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off is called the -...."

1.8.3.1
"The product of the weight of an item and its horizontal distance from the datum is called the -...."

1.8.3.2
"An effect of loading an aeroplane with its centre of gravity forward of the forward limit is that -"

1.8.4.1
"The maximum speed at which full or abrupt control movements can be safely made during normal flight is called the -...."

2.7.2
"The beginning of daylight in UTC at FORREST WA (3050S 12807E) on the 7th February is closest to -"

2.7.2.3
"Given:

  • Beginning of daylight HAY (3432S 14450E) is 0615LMT;

  • End of daylight AYERS ROCK (2512S 13059E) is 1715LMT;

  • planned landing time is 30 minutes before end of daylight.

What is the approximate time available, for a VFR flight from HAY to AYERS ROCK if the planned landing time is to be achieved?"

2.7.2.4
"During winter in Australia, in what direction from the departure aerodrome will the end of daylight (in LMT) be later?"

2.7.3
"You are planning a flight from MUDGEE (NSW) (3234S 14936E) to COWRA (NSW) (3351S 14839E). The ARFORS needed for the flight MUDGEE - COWRA are:"

2.7.3/4
"You plan to fly from NARRABRI (YNBR) (3019S 14950E) direct to ST GEORGE (YSGE) (2803S 14836E). To avoid clouds after departing YNBR you divert left of planned TR along the YNBR - WALGETT railway line. At WEE WAA township (approximately 20 nm WNW YNBR) you decide to track direct to YSGE. The ARFOR wind for your cruise level is 100/20 kts, and your TAS is 140 kts. The HDG (M) to steer to YSGE is closest to -"

2.7.4
"Given:

  • Pressure height = 6000 ft,

  • OAT = +20 Deg C,

  • CAS = 120 kt.

Determine the TAS."

2.7.4
"A PVT Day flight is planned over a distance of 325nm at a ground speed of 115kt. Planned fuel flow is 40Litres/hr. Fixed reserve is 16Litres and taxi fuel is 4Litres. The minimum fuel required at start up for this flight is closest to -"

2.7.4(c)
"Given:

  • Area Forecast W/V = 150/45,

  • TR(T) = 080 Deg ,

  • Variation = 10 Deg E,

  • TAS = 145kts.

Determine the approximate HDG(M) and GS -"

2.7.5.1(c)
"You plan to fly from NARRABRI (YNBR) (3019S 14950E) direct to ST GEORGE (YSGE) (2803S 14836E). To avoid clouds after departing YNBR you divert left of planned TR along the YNBR - WALGETT railway line. At WEE WAA township (approximately 20nm WNW YNBR) you decide to track direct to YSGE. Which of the following features would provide the most accurate ground speed check between WEE WAA and YSGE?"

2.7.5.3
"The following details pertain to a direct flight from BATHURST (YBTH) (3325S 14939E) to DUBBO (YSDU) (3213S 14834E):

ATD YBTH at 2305UTC, 2317UTC over HILL END town (approximately 25nm from YBTH), constant HDG maintained since departure YBTH.

The alteration of HDG required to regain planned TR to YSDU abeam Wellington town is closest to -"

2.7.5.3(d)
"The following details pertain to a direct flight from BATHURST (YBTH) (3325S 14939E) to DUBBO (YSDU) (3213S 14834E):

ATD YBTH at 2305 UTC, 2317 UTC over HILL END town (approximately 25nm from YBTH).

Using this data the estimate for YSDU is closest to -"

2.7.5.3(d)
"You are on a flight from ST GEORGE (YSGE) (2803S 14836E) to WALGETT (YWLG) (3002S 14807E). You departed YSGE at 0308UTC. At 0324UTC you crossed the railway line (approximately 35nm SE YSGE) and fixed your position between Bonathorne railway station and NOONDOO township. Using track error lines you estimate that the track error from YSGE to the 0324UTC position is 8 degrees right. You now alter HDG 16 degrees left to intercept the planned TR. At what time should the aircraft intercept the (planned) YSGE - YWLG track?"

2.7.6.2
"The rated coverage of DEVONPORT (TAS) NDB over the sea during the day is -"

2.7.6.3
"Which of the following errors or limitations is most commonly associated with the ADF/NDB system?"

2.7.6.8
"If uncertain of position how can you track to an aerodrome with a VOR?

Tune and identify the station; turn OBS till the -"

2.8.3.1
"Given:

  • Pressure height = 4000 ft,

  • Outside air temperature = +17 Deg C.

Determine the density height."

2.8.3.1(b)
"With 1013 hPa set on the sub-scale, an altimeter would always indicate -"

2.8.4
"In the take-off configuration with landing gear extended an aeroplane with a maximum take-off weight not exceeding 5700 kg shall have the ability to achieve a minimum climb gradient of -"

2.8.4.2
"Refer to the diagram provided in the examination.

Given the following details:

  • Runway = 05/23,

  • take-off distance available = 1300 metres,

  • slope = level,

  • surface = long wet grass,

  • pressure height = 3000 ft,

  • wind = 230/10 kts,

  • temperature = +15 Deg C,

  • take-off weight = 1050 kg.

The take-off distance required under the conditions given is closest to -"

2.8.4.2
" Refer to the diagram provided in the examination.

Given the following details:

Runway = 08/26, Take-off distance available = 1200 metres, Surface = short wet grass, Slope = level, Pressure height = 4000 ft, Wind = 080/05 kt, Temperature = +28 Deg C.

The heaviest take-off weight permitted under the conditions given is closest to -"

2.8.4.2(f)
"The purpose of establishing take-off safety speed is to -"

2.8.6.3
"Refer to the loading system provided in the examination.

Given:

  • Aircraft empty weight = 689 kg,

  • Empty aircraft index units = 19522,

  • Oil = 7 kg,

  • Row 1, pilot and passenger = 110 kg,

  • Baggage (baggage compartment) = 75 kg,

  • Fuel = 140 litres.

The maximum passenger weight, in kg, that may be carried in Row 2 at take-off is closest to -"

2.8.6.4
"Refer to the loading system provided in the examination

Given:

Basic index units = -300,

  • Basic empty weight = 998 kg,

  • Row 1 - pilot and passenger = 135 kg,

  • Row 2 - forward facing passengers = 142 kg,

  • Row 3 = 120 kg,

  • Baggage (total weight) = 85 kg.

The maximum weight of fuel, in kg, which may be carried at take-off is closest to -"

2.8.7.2(c)
"You plan to fly NARRABRI (NSW) (3019S 14950E) - ST GEORGE (QLD) (2803S 14836E) - WALGETT (NSW) (3002S 14807E). For the total flight which ARFORS are required?"

2.8.7.3
"This question relates to a VFR flight by day proceeding more than 50 nm from the departure aerodrome. The maximum permitted crosswind component in an aeroplane's flight manual is 15 kt. Which of the following weather conditions forecast for the destination at the ETA would necessitate the provision of an alternate?"

2.8.7.3/2.9.10.3
"Your aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of 2100kg. You plan a flight to YTRE with an ETA of 0040UTC. TAF YTRE extract reads:

TAF YTRE 011835Z 2008 33015KT CAVOK
FM01 18018KT 9999 2ST010 4SC012

Nominate, with the appropriate reasons, whether or not an alternate must be provided."

2.8.8.1(a)
"Refer (BOURKE) WAC 3356 (provided in examination). You plan to fly ST GEORGE (YSGE) (2803S 14836E) - WALGETT (YWLG) (3002S 14807E). Your track YSGE to YWLG is 181 Deg (M). The ARFOR indicates that there will be more than 4 oktas clouds with a base of 10,000ft along the route. The highest altitude at which you may cruise VFR in accordance with the Table of Cruising Levels is -"

2.9.10.1
"When is A METAR is issued routinely ?-"

2.9.10.3
"Refer : ARFOR / TAF 1 (provided in examination)

Depart YSWG 0500 - YSCB - arrive YMER 0715

Freezing level and visibility forecast for the YSWG-YSCB route segment of the flight is -"

2.9.10.3
"The following cloud is forecast in an ARFOR:

SCT SC 3500/5500

The height of the base of the cloud layer is -"

2.9.10.5
"If you observe that the cloud amount is significantly greater than that which is forecast, the type of report you should submit is called a -"

1.2.2.3
"During flight, a centre-zero ammeter shows an abnormally high positive reading for an extended period of time. The correct interpretation of this is that -"

1.2.2.5
"Operating an engine with the oil level below the specified minimum is likely to cause -"

1.2.2.6
"The engine operating conditions most likely to produce fouling of spark plugs are -"

1.2.2.7
"Fuel injection systems are less susceptible than float-type carburettor systems to -"

1.2.2.8
"How may aviation gasoline be visually distinguished from aviation turbine fuel?"

1.2.3.2
"When no specific instructions are available, which of the following would be the correct fuel/air mixture setting for take-off at a high density altitude aerodrome? The mixture should be - "

1.2.4.1
"The main reason for ensuring that fuel tank vents are kept clear and unobstructed is to-"

1.2.4.2
"During a climb, a high cylinder head temperature could be reduced by -"

1.2.5.2
"Given -

  • Outside air temperature = +5 Deg C

  • Relative humidity = 60%

In which of the following operational situations would you consider carburettor icing most likely?"

1.2.5.3
"In an engine fitted with a carburettor and a constant-speed propeller, the absence of induction icing may be verified by applying carburettor heat and noting an immediate - "

1.2.6.1
"On a colour-coded ASI, the maximum landing gear operating speed (VLO) is -"

1.2.6.3
"In a climb from level flight, the altimeter reading remains unchanged. A likely cause is a blocked -"

1.6.1.1
"The angle of attack is the angle between the aeroplane's -"

1.6.11.3
"In which situation is ground effect most pronounced?"

1.6.2.1
"How will lift and drag vary if the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased from 4 degrees up to the stalling angle?"

1.6.2.3
"In level flight, the speed at which total drag is a minimum would be-"

1.6.2.4
"Refer to the coefficient of lift curve shown at (provided in examination.) At what speed would an aeroplane be operating if flying level at angle of attack 'X'?"

1.6.3(b)
"Which statement best describes the relationship between aeroplane speed and elevator control?"

1.6.5.2
"What effect will a head wind have on the angle and rate of climb?"

1.6.6.1
"An aircraft is on a glide approach at 65 kts. The pilot lowers full flap and maintains 65 kts. What is the effect on approach angle?"

1.6.6.2
"An increase in headwind component, while gliding at the recommended best gliding speed, would result in -"

1.6.6.3
"How will gliding at a speed higher than the recommended best glide speed affect the glide range?"

1.6.7.6
"If the indicated stalling speed of an aircraft is 60 kt in straight and level flight what is the indicated stalling speed in a balanced 60 Deg turn?"

1.6.8.1
"An aerofoil is said to be at its stalling angle if any increase or decrease in angle of attack results in "

1.6.8.3
"Select the variable which would reduce the indicated stalling speed of an aeroplane in level flight."

1.6.8.5
"Which of the following flight instruments would best enable a pilot to differentiate between a spin and a spiral dive?"

1.6.9.2
"Which of the following is a likely reason for a yaw to the right during the take-off roll in a single-engine aeroplane fitted with an engine which rotates in a clockwise direction when view from the cockpit?"

1.6.9.4
"Which of the following is a result of lowering flap during an approach to land?"

2.2.3.2
"The engine operating conditions most likely to produce fouling of spark plugs are - "

2.2.5.5
"In the Southern Hemisphere, the heading indicated by the direct reading magnetic compass, will lead an aeroplane's actual heading when turning through - "

2.6.10.1(a)
"Which of the following effects will result from moving the centre of gravity of an aeroplane forward?"

2.6.11.2
"During take-off as the pilot raises the tail of a single engine tail- wheel aeroplane, there will be an increased tendency to yaw to the left because of -"

2.6.11.3
"For a given angle of attack and power setting, an aeroplane leaving ground effect will experience an increase in -"

2.6.8.3
"Consider the turn performance of two aeroplanes with different gross weights. If they both execute turns at the same IAS, altitude, and bank, the heavier aeroplane will have -"

2.6.9.2
"At which speed (IAS) should a piston-engine aeroplane be flown to achieve maximum endurance in level flight?"

2.6.9.5
"What will be the effect of an increase in weight on glide performance in still air if the best lift/drag ratio is maintained?"

2.8.7.2(b)/2.3.4
"A pilot is planning a private flight from one island to another in a single-engine aircraft. The total distance for the flight is 45 nm but the aircraft will be beyond gliding distance from land over part of the route. Which statement is correct regarding the planning requirements for this flight?"

2.9.11
"In summer over tropical inland regions, at what time of day can thunderstorm activity normally be expected to commence ."

2.9.11.1
"The type of weather associated with monsoonal airflow in summer in Northern Australia would be -"

2.9.2.1.(b)
"A strong pressure gradient is normally associated with - "

2.9.4.3
"The cloud type most likely to be associated with heavy continuous rain is -"

2.9.4.3
"The flying conditions above a layer of small cumulus clouds are likely to be -"

2.9.6.2
"Squall lines are most often associated with -"

2.9.6.3
"One effect of surface friction upon airflow near the earth's surface is to -"

2.9.6.4
"You would expect calm conditions at an aerodrome in the morning to persist for a longer period if -"

2.9.7.1
"An approaching fast moving cold front may sometimes be recognised by the accompanying- "

2.9.8.1
"Which of the following would indicate a sudden decrease in headwind component during an approach to land?"

2.9.8.1
"An aeroplane takes off in calm conditions and climbs through a wind shear where it encounters a strong tail wind. What initial effect will this change in W/V have on IAS and the flight path?"

2.9.9.1
"With reference to the chart provided in the examination
At the time of issue of the chart the wind direction at Melbourne (YMML) is approximately -"

2.9.9.2
"With reference to the chart provided in the examination.
The weather conditions to be expected at YPPH at the time of the chart are -"

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